1 is what percent of 392?

Answer: 1 of 392 is 0.26%

Let's see how we can calculate this percentage: 1 is what percent of 392? Here is a very simple step-by-step guide to find out.

Step 1: We use the following formula:

\(\text{Percentage calculation}\) = \({X \over Y}\)

• \(X = 1\)
• \(Y = 392\)
• Percentage calculation = \(1 \over 392 \) = \(0.0025510204081633\)

Step 2: A percentage is a number or ratio expressed as a fraction of 100.

\(0.0026\) = \(0.26 \over 100 \) = \(0.26\%\)

\(Answer: \) 1 of 392 is 0.26%

1 is what percent of 392? 0.26 percent.

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